1]Brothers and sisters in Christ, In my second response to my opponent, I will critique my opponent's portrait of justification: merely the reception of a passive, static, juridical righteousness. This is truly an inadequate view of God's grace because it reduces our justification to a legal transaction. The Protestant view asserts we only receive the forgiveness of sins.
The glorious picture of our justification in Christ includes much more than simple remission of guilt. The Catholic view includes: the reception of the Spirit of God (Rom.8:14-17), the regeneration that accompanies it(Titus 3:3-5, John 3:3:-5), and the transformation of a dead sinner into a child of God (John1:12, 1 John 3:1). The Catholic view of justification can be defined as "the translation from the state in which man was born a child of the first Adam, to the state of grace and adoption of the sons of God, through the second Adam, Jesus Christ our Savior.(Trent, session 6, chapter 4)." Justification can, therefore, be understood as the reception of divine sonship or divine adoption(Gal.4: 4-7) . Justification is a process of living a life in grace: a past event (being made a child), a present activity(growing in grace), and a future reality (our ultimate justification at judgement). As our life matures as a son or daughter of God, our justification increases and reaches its final goal in our glorification in heaven. With this summary in mind, let us now highlight the deficiencies in my opponent's view.

2]Case in point: Titus 3:3-5 - Challenge Accepted
My opponent challenged me in his last statement (par.#4) to show how "works of righteousness" spoken of in Titus 3 is referring to the legalistic works of the unbeliever. Certainly this is the case since the context highlights in Ch.3 verse 3 how we were once "foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving diverse lusts..." Verse 4 states: "But when"! showing the clear opposition between the one status of life and another..."the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared." Then in verse 5 he continues the contrast: "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration and renewal by the Holy Spirit." St.Paul contrasts how we are not saved by our "works of righteousness" but by his mercy. I have continually asserted the fact that we can't work our way into the justified status of being children of God. It is simply the mercy of divine election: God in His mercy bestows His grace upon us, making us his justified sons and daughters. The unbeliever's work cannot merit the status of divine adoption.
Notice how we were saved: "by the washing of regeneration" and "renewal in the Spirit." This truly affirms the nature of our justification- an inner renewal and a rebirth. The transformation is clear and certain in the passage in regards to our justified status. The passage goes on to assert "...renewal in the Holy Spirit whom he poured out upon us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life. This is a faithful saying, and these things I will that thou affirm constantly, that they which have believed in God might be careful to maintain good works(Tit3:6-8)." So we can see that the reception of the Spirit occurs as we are "justified by his grace." The Spirit is poured out upon us generously. Where for art thou imputation? And then Paul immediately affirms how those "which have believed might be careful to maintain good works." This is so close to Ephesians 2:8-10, where Paul affirms we are saved "by grace through faith" and then goes on to affirm we are "created in Christ Jesus for good works." What can be logically and necessarily asserted once again, is that faith necessarily issues forth in good works (Gal.5:6). Faith and obedience are inextricably bound up in the life of the believer in these salvation passages. We see human works apart from grace being denounced in both contexts and we see how the believer's good works flow from the gift of faith which began his new life in Christ. I challenge my opponent to show where we find imputation occurring in the Titus 3 passage.
Additionally, we note the beauty and purpose of Jesus' sacrifice for our sins in Titus 2:14: "Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works." The redemption is accomplished for the purpose of the remission of sins, "to purify" his people, so that they might be "zealous" in their good works. We do not see imputation standing alone as the goal or effect of Jesus' meritorious work on the Cross.
In 1 Corinthians 6:11, we also do not see justification and sanctification at odds: "11: And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God." Notice how he speaks in v.10 of their despicable state and their heinous actions as unbelievers, and then turns around to highlight their new status: their salvation brought them inner transformation...they were made righteous in Christ Jesus. Where for art thou, imputation?

As for the my opponent putting Christian Baptism in the same category as the unbeliever's attempts to obligate God, attempting to use Matthew 3:15 as a way to show it as a "work of righteousness, " BUNK!! Jesus simply considered this baptism the fulfilling of a righteous work, so He instructed John to baptize him. Obviously, Jesus isn't downplaying the role of N.T. Baptism. The New Testament type of Baptism is spoken of in the preceding verses, where John says in Mt:3:11: "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Spirit, and with fire." Acts 22:16 assists us in understanding the efficacious nature of N.T. Baptism: "arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord." Such is the pattern found in Sacred Scripture.

3] Are we "new creations in Christ" or "snow covered dung hills"?
The glory to God for our justified status as sons and daughters is found most clearly in the fact that we are spiritually reborn and in this rebirth we are recreated. In this act of spiritual rebirth, The Spirit of God is given us, and our hearts are utterly transformed. As Adam imparted a fallen nature and guilt, so Christ (the new Adam, the founding father of the family of God) imparts divine life and forgiveness, cleansing our hearts from sin (Rom5:15-6:5). Paul shows us the importance of the new status in Gal.6:15 in opposition to legalistic obedience: "For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creation." The ceremonial law didn't suffice as the means to righteousness. The same exact language is used in 2 Corinthians 5:17-21, which my opponent counts as one of the indisputable references to imputation:
"17 Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.
18 And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation;
19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
20 Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.
21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."
Note in verse 17, the old things have passed away, all things have become new. The cleansing renewal that takes place is not to be missed. And to follow St.Paul further in his train of thought: 2 Cor.6:1 "We then, as workers together with him, beseech you also that ye receive not the grace of God in vain.
2 For he says, I have heard thee in a time accepted, and helped you on the day of salvation; behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation."

Notice, that the context first shows that it is a new creation, not anything about an alien righteousness covering up an ungodly person who stays inherently sinful. Paul says that he is is an ambassador who is given the gift of a minstry of reconciliation of sinners to God. V. 19 is using a verb that may mean to make just. Nothing about a mere extrinsic, forensic, legal declaration. Then just prior to the critical verse that the Protestant alleges "double imputation", Paul says be reconciled to God! Why worry about being reconciled to God if your basis for justification is an alien righteousness that one can not lose? The very next verses show that one can receive the grace of God in vain (6:1-2). The whole context of 2 Cor. 5-6 Paul shows concern about the very salvation of the Corinthians. Thus to take 2 Cor. 5:21 simply as a legal exchange strains not only the text but the surrounding context.

4]Another of the so-called "indisputable" references to imputation I call into question is in Romans 4:6-8, regarding David's righteousness before God. St.Paul is quoting Ps.32:1, which tells us David's sin was "forgiven" and "not counted against him" but also speaks of him "in whose spirit is no deceit." Clearly the passage shows his state of heart is also in view, the quality of righteousness it possessed. David had a heart that was right as well as having the sin forgiven. The parallel passage where David's sin is forgiven him we see in Psalm 51:9-12, where he writes:
"create in me a clean heart,O God; and renew a right spirit within me.
V.11: Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me.
12: Restore unto me the joy of thy salvation; and uphold me with thy free spirit.
Here we discover that David's justified status referenced by St.Paul in Romans 4 effects sins being "blotted out" and in the same breath his heart being transformed. The Holy Spirit being taken from him is his real concern and wants God to change his heart to create in him a "steadfast" and "willing spirit." This is speaking most certainly of a moral change in character. Therefore, the imputation alone will not suffice in Romans 4.

5]My opponent wishes the force of Romans 2 away, and attempts to view it a hypothetical case. He thinks it to be an unobtainable goal: "13: For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified." He believes it is to be so because he thinks that absolute perfection is required. He thinks Romans 3:10 negates the force of Rom.2. Such is not the case. Romans 3:10, 4:23 has to do with the non-regenerate men, who are under the dominion or "power of sin." To the contrary, believers are children of God led by the Spirit of God to walk in holiness. Their acts of loving obedience under grace by the power of the Spirit is efficacious. Are we to believe the Spirit of God inadequate to conquer our sin in the act of justification? Is the believer only and always unrighteous, as the Protestant would affirm? Is that what St.Paul says? Paul shows us in Rom. 8:4 that the law can be kept by believers:
" That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." This new life in the Spirit given us, along with the "Spirit of Sonship(Rom 8:15)," must be actively sought. This is so clearly taught by St.Paul in Romans and Galatians. In Galatians 6:7-9, he writes: "7: Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap.
8: For he that soweth to his flesh shall of the flesh reap corruption; but he that soweth to the Spirit shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting.
9: And let us not be weary in well doing: for in due season we shall reap, if we faint not."
We find out Paul's way to reconcile the apparent problem: we are given the Spirit to make us holy and to empower us to keep the Holy Law of God. We fulfill the law by our faithful loving obedience. We see the harmony as he mentions "sow to the Spirit" and not growing weary in our "well doing."
The common Pauline teaching is found in Romans 8:13,17: "For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live."
17: And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with him, that we may be also glorified together.
We are children of God who suffer with him and live by the Spirit. Without the suffering- avoiding sin, denying our self (Luke 9:23-28), there can be no heavenly glory for us.

6] The Nature of God and our justification...
Prov.17:15: "He that justifieth the wicked, and he that condemneth the just, even they both are abomination to the LORD."
Rev.21:27: But nothing unclean shall enter it, nor anyone who practices abomination or falsehood: but only those which are written in the Lamb's book of life.
In these texts, as well as in Rev.22:11,14 that I highlighted in my last response, we see the nature of God cannot be compromised. The infinite justice of God cannot be satisfied in allowing someone who is actually "unclean" to enter heaven. For the Protestant, their righteousness is supposedly grounded only in the extrinsic labeling of man. A mere declaration would have God contradicting His own nature. He cannot verify unrighteousness as right in His sight. Therefore, the fallen nature must be dealt with in order to enter heaven. How else, but by a regeneration? Grace must actually make one righteous by an infusion of divine life if there is going to be a true reckoning of one's possession of a state of justice. Without Christ's own righteousness being imparted to us, we could not enter into His presence.

7]Who is taking God at His Word?
I wish to reassert the fact that nowhere does Scripture ever assert that a man can be "justified by faith alone," as my opponent admits. My opponent thinks this is fine, and quickly asserts that the word "Purgatory" is never mentioned in the Bible. Very true. But Purgatory is never explicitly denied in Scripture. The Holy Spirit did, in fact, negate Sola Fide in James 2:24: "a man is not justified is by faith alone, but by works." And in Romans 2:13, the Spirit inspired St.Paul to write "the doers of the law shall be justified." Even Jesus mentions in Matt.19: "but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments." In light of these clear statements, how are we to be misled? This is in addition to the numerous judgement scene passages, where Jesus judges men's hearts by their works (Matt25:13-46, John 5:28-29 and elsewhere) and separates the wicked from the righteous. Where do we find the imputation? In John's Gospel, Jesus plainly states for us how we are ultimately to be judged: "28: Marvel not at this: for the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice,
29: And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
This flies in the face of my opponent's isogesis of John 5:24. Assuredly, other passages as well are being mishandled. As for this passive, forensic view of justification, St.Paul has aptly warned us:
7: Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
Jason, can you address adequately how good exegesis gathers anything other than the Catholic conclusion on these substantial points? Who is truly taking Sacred Scripture literally?

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